Galatians 3:3 KJV “Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh?”
In this context “flesh” clearly means the ritualism of the ceremonial law in that the context is about the Galatians seeking to get circumcised and follow the festivals of the Hebrew calendar.
Strangely enough the NIV 2011 (despite changing its translation of sarx from “sinful nature” to the more accurate “flesh”) still has the following footnote in this verse:
In contexts like this, the Greek word for flesh (sarx) refers to the sinful state of human beings, often presented as a power in opposition to the Spirit.
Could they possibly be more oblivious to the meaning of the word in this context?
I would add that in Romans 8:3 I think “flesh” there also refers to “ritualism” rather than “sinfulness” in the first occurance:
For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: (Rom 8:3 KJV)
I think the meaning is that the law was weak because it combined ritualism in with morality thus weakening its moral credibility; not that the law was weak because of our sinfulness.
Notice how the thing he says the law failed to do was condemn sin; but Jesus came and did what the law failed to do, i.e. condemned sin.
THAT IS because the law soiled its own moral credibility to condemn actual sin (i.e. immorality) by throwing in all these silly FLESHLY ceremonial things like kosher and not mixing wool and linen; therefore we needed Jesus to come obliterate the ceremonial law and thus properly condemn sin, that is, real sin (i.e. immorality) with no admixture of any silly concept of ceremonial “sins.”